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OSPF and no area 0

  • From: "Alok Dube" <alokdube1978@rediffmail.com>
  • Date: 25 Jul 2003 07:15:09 -0000
  • Resent-Date: Fri, 25 Jul 2003 03:48:57 -0400
  • To: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com

Hi,


a. There is an MPLS VPN network.

b. The customers may wish to run IGP as OSPF

c. The typical problem in such a scenario is the "Area 0" will be 
the "spoke" of the customer's network.? It is my understanding 
that everything would go to Area 0 and then to other areas, is 
this correct?

d. Would it be possible to not have an "area0" in the whole VPN 
for the customer? but stillhave individual areas in OSPF?

e. my knowledge of ISIS is less,but i assume area0 <->level 2 in 
ISIS. Is it possible to have a topology with no level 2 but only 
level  -1 areas/rings for the customers?

the information across the OSPF/ISIS Areas on different parts of 
the VPN would be carried by MPBGP.

Is this how it is currently done? or do we still have an area 
0/level-2 area?

would appreciate some clarification..
-thanks
Alok


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