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AW: OSPF and no area 0

  • From: "Strahler, Carsten" <Carsten.Strahler@lambdanet.net>
  • Date: Fri, 25 Jul 2003 15:38:58 +0200
  • Resent-Date: Fri, 25 Jul 2003 10:30:51 -0400
  • To: "'Alok Dube'" <alokdube1978@rediffmail.com>, mpls-ops@mplsrc.com

Hi Alok,

it is recommend but not necessary to have an area 0. 

Have a look at
http://www.ietf.cnri.reston.va.us/internet-drafts/draft-rosen-vpns-ospf-bgp-
mpls-06.txt
to get an better impression about the problems of OSPF 
in a MPLS-VPN environment.

regards

------------------------------------------------------------
Carsten Strahler

IP Planning 

Lambdanet Communications Deutschland AG (AS 13237)
Guenther-Wagner-Allee 13
D-30177 Hannover (Germany)

Phone   +49 (0)511 / 84 88 12 57
Mobile  +49 (0)173 / 629 1257
Fax     +49 (0)511 / 84 88 12 59
mailto:carsten.strahler@lambdanet.net

web: www.lambdanet.net
-----------------------------------------------------------





> -----Ursprungliche Nachricht-----
> Von: Alok Dube [mailto:alokdube1978@rediffmail.com]
> Gesendet: Freitag, 25. Juli 2003 09:15
> An: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
> Betreff: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and no area 0
> 
> 
> Hi,
> 
> 
> a. There is an MPLS VPN network.
> 
> b. The customers may wish to run IGP as OSPF
> 
> c. The typical problem in such a scenario is the "Area 0" will be 
> the "spoke" of the customer's network.? It is my understanding 
> that everything would go to Area 0 and then to other areas, is 
> this correct?
> 
> d. Would it be possible to not have an "area0" in the whole VPN 
> for the customer? but stillhave individual areas in OSPF?
> 
> e. my knowledge of ISIS is less,but i assume area0 <->level 2 in 
> ISIS. Is it possible to have a topology with no level 2 but only 
> level  -1 areas/rings for the customers?
> 
> the information across the OSPF/ISIS Areas on different parts of 
> the VPN would be carried by MPBGP.
> 
> Is this how it is currently done? or do we still have an area 
> 0/level-2 area?
> 
> would appreciate some clarification..
> -thanks
> Alok
> 
> 
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