The MPLS-OPS Archive

["Alok Dube" <alokdube1978@rediffmail.com>]

yes as "in"?

no more "area 0"?


On Fri, 25 Jul 2003 Lars Higham wrote :
>Yes
>
>-----Original Message-----
> From: Alok Dube [mailto:alokdube1978@rediffmail.com]
>Sent: Friday, July 25, 2003 8:57 PM
>To: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
>Subject: Re: RE: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and no area 0
>
>
>Hi,
>
>Thanks for all your replies....
>
>just clarifying my question was:
>
>what happens if there is no area 0 at all, either in customer 
>VPN
>network or in the MPLS core?
>
>this has nothing to do with label distribution by the way as
>someone else mailed me....
>
>im looking at "rings" for customers and "BGP" to propgate areas
>between "rings"...but there is still no Area 0 for the 
>customer's
>IGP.
>
>for eg:
>assume customer VPN site-1 is area 1, site-2 is area 2, site-3 
>is
>area 3
>
>there is no area 0.
>
>is this possible?
>
>-thanks
>Alok
>
>
>
>
>On Fri, 25 Jul 2003 Lars Higham wrote :
> >It wrapped - connect it so it's ...bgp-mpls-06.txt
> >
> >-----Original Message-----
> > From: Jerome Law [mailto:Jerome.Law@vanco.co.uk]
> >Sent: Friday, July 25, 2003 7:25 PM
> >To: 'Strahler, Carsten'; 'Alok Dube'; mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
> >Subject: RE: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and no area 0
> >
> >
> >
> >No suck link.
> >
> >-----Original Message-----
> > From: Strahler, Carsten
> >[mailto:Carsten.Strahler@lambdanet.net]
> >Sent: 25 July 2003 14:39
> >To: 'Alok Dube'; mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
> >Subject: AW: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and no area 0
> >
> >Hi Alok,
> >
> >it is recommend but not necessary to have an area 0.
> >
> >Have a look at
> >http://www.ietf.cnri.reston.va.us/internet-drafts/draft-rosen-vpns-ospf
> >-
> >bgp-
> >mpls-06.txt
> >to get an better impression about the problems of OSPF
> >in a MPLS-VPN environment.
> >
> >regards
> >
> >------------------------------------------------------------
> >Carsten Strahler
> >
> >IP Planning
> >
> >Lambdanet Communications Deutschland AG (AS 13237)
> >Guenther-Wagner-Allee 13 D-30177 Hannover (Germany)
> >
> >Phone   +49 (0)511 / 84 88 12 57
> >Mobile  +49 (0)173 / 629 1257
> >Fax     +49 (0)511 / 84 88 12 59
> >mailto:carsten.strahler@lambdanet.net
> >
> >web: www.lambdanet.net
> >-----------------------------------------------------------
> >
> >
> >
> >
> >
> > > -----Ursprungliche Nachricht-----
> > > Von: Alok Dube [mailto:alokdube1978@rediffmail.com]
> > > Gesendet: Freitag, 25. Juli 2003 09:15
> > > An: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
> > > Betreff: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and no area 0
> > >
> > >
> > > Hi,
> > >
> > >
> > > a. There is an MPLS VPN network.
> > >
> > > b. The customers may wish to run IGP as OSPF
> > >
> > > c. The typical problem in such a scenario is the "Area 0" 
>will
> >be
> > > the "spoke" of the customer's network.? It is my
> >understanding
> > > that everything would go to Area 0 and then to other 
>areas,
> >is
> > > this correct?
> > >
> > > d. Would it be possible to not have an "area0" in the 
>whole
> >VPN
> > > for the customer? but stillhave individual areas in OSPF?
> > >
> > > e. my knowledge of ISIS is less,but i assume area0 <->level 
>2
> >in
> > > ISIS. Is it possible to have a topology with no level 2 
>but
> >only
> > > level  -1 areas/rings for the customers?
> > >
> > > the information across the OSPF/ISIS Areas on different 
>parts
> >of
> > > the VPN would be carried by MPBGP.
> > >
> > > Is this how it is currently done? or do we still have an
> >area
> > > 0/level-2 area?
> > >
> > > would appreciate some clarification..
> > > -thanks
> > > Alok
> > >
> > >
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