The MPLS-OPS Archive

["Alok Dube" <alok.dube@apara.com>]

hi Lars,

I am sorry I think I have not worded my question properly.

What I want to know is this

CE1 and cE2 are connected at 2 points in a VPN

they run OSPF/RIP which needs to be distributed into BGP etc and then back
on the other side into RIP...etc..Am i right?
I want to know if one can avoid the "BGP into IGP" part.

Now is there a "multihop" variation of RIP or OSPF that could be run
directly between the CEs?
In other words, the PE needs not put the BGP routes into IGP? but PE needs
to put "IGP into BGP" just for reachability.
am I a bit clearer? or maybe not? :o)










> Alok, see below:
>
> Regards,
> Lars Higham
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: alok [mailto:alok.dube@apara.com]
> Sent: Thursday, May 15, 2003 10:35 PM
> To: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com
> Subject: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and RIP
>
>
> Hi,
>
> what distinguishes OSPF from RIP in terms of a IGP in an MPLS network?
> OSPF is more resource intensive
> OSPF has faster convergence
> RIP is generally easier to configure and troubleshoot - lower
> complexity RIP v1 doesn't support VLSM; RIP v2 and OSPF do
> TTBOMK, RIP doesn't support traffic-engineering as do OSPF and ISIS
>
> are protocols in UDP not route-able?
> Eh?
>
> or are protocols in IP not  routeable?
> Eh?
>
> if both are, why do we have to consider BGP into OSPF distribution?
> Depends on the design and requirements of the network; ISPs generally
> don't distribute BGP routes into the IGP whereas an enterprise using
> BGP as the global core might (again, depending on the network design)
> gain more accurate routing from doing so.
>
> why not L3VPN running OSPF or RIP?
> Where?  PE-CE?  You can -
>
> very *grey* question, but would appreciate if someone could clarify.
>
> -rgds
> Alok
>
>
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