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Re: OSPF and RIP
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From: "alok" <alok.dube@apara.com>
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Date: Sat, 17 May 2003 19:14:03 +0530
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Cc: "MPLS-ops Mailing List" <mpls-ops@mplsrc.com>
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Resent-Date: Sat, 17 May 2003 10:38:17 -0400
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To: "'Spice Sylvia'" <falsesylvia@yahoo.co.uk>, "Lars Higham" <lhigham@yahoo.com>
Title: Message
Hi Lars/Hi Sylvia,
More specifically,
I dont want to "break my OSPF
areas"....
L2VPN is one way too...as Lars
mentioned...
this other one seems like a good possibility
too..... (same overheads/LSAs as L2VPN I guess).
I want the option to treat the VRF as an
ASBR...
Sylvia, let me think about this.....
Have you tried this somewhere?
----- Original Message -----
Sent: Saturday, May 17, 2003 7:00
PM
Subject: RE: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF and
RIP
Hello Sylvia,
You're thinking of the PE-CE routing, where I believe that Alok's
concern is that once the routes follow the path CE-PE-MPGBP-PE he doesn't then
want to put the routes into the destination PE vrf's IGP, whatever it
is.
The
cleanest way of accomplishing this, depending on how Internet connections and
routing are handled by the customer, is to advertise a default route, or even
one or more summary routes, into the destination PE's vrf IGP enabling default
routing for that site and removing the requirement for installing specific
route information into the IGP.
Regards, Lars Higham
Hi Alok,
You could see if its possible to run OSPF "per VR" and see if that
helps.
like:
R1---VRF1(OSPF)---L2LSPbetween2VRs----VRF2(OSPF)--R2
VRF1 and VRF2 can for adjacencies.
If LSPs are VRF to VRF, it might be possible to do this.
Myself never tried it, perhaps others on the list may have.
-S.F.
Alok Dube <alok.dube@apara.com>
wrote:
hi
Lars,
I am sorry I think I have not worded my question
properly.
What I want to know is this
CE1 and cE2 are
connected at 2 points in a VPN
they run OSPF/RIP which needs to be
distributed into BGP etc and then back on the other side into
RIP...etc..Am i right? I want to know if one can avoid the "BGP into
IGP" part.
Now is there a "multihop" variation of RIP or OSPF that
could be run directly between the CEs? In other words, the PE needs
not put the BGP routes into IGP? but PE needs to put "IGP into BGP"
just for reachability. am I a bit clearer? or maybe not?
:o)
> Alok, see
below: > > Regards, > Lars
Higham > > > -----Original Message----- > From:
alok [mailto:alok.dube@apara.com] > Sent: Thursday, May 15, 2003
10:35 PM > To: mpls-ops@mplsrc.com > Subject: [MPLS-OPS]: OSPF
and RIP > > > Hi, > > what distinguishes
OSPF from RIP in terms of a IGP in an MPLS network? > OSPF is more
resource intensive > OSPF has faster convergence > RIP is
generally easier to configure and troubleshoot - lower > complexity
RIP v1 doesn't support VLSM; RIP v2 and OSPF do > TTBOMK, RIP
doesn't support traffic-engineering as do OSPF and ISIS > >
are protocols in UDP not route-able? > Eh? > > or are
protocols in IP not routeable? > Eh? > > if both are,
why do we have to consider BGP into OSPF distribution? > Depends on
the design and requirements of the network; ISPs generally > don't
distribute BGP routes into the IGP whereas an enterprise using > BGP
as the global core might (again, depending on the network design) >
gain more accurate routing from doing so. > > why not L3VPN
running OSPF or RIP? > Where? PE-CE? You can - > > very
*grey* question, but would appreciate if someone could
clarify. > > -rgds > Alok > > >
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